Rognvald, your last post has me thoroughly perplexed.
In your initial post, you state that the lack of musicality among classical guitar players is the result of teachers placing an emphasis on technique rather than artistry. In subsequent posts, you suggest that this is also the result of the decline of American culture. I can grasp how these two things may be related, and, though I do not necessarily agree with you, I could follow you.
Your last post, on the other hand, asserts that genetics play a significant role in determining a musicians capacity to develop their musicality. You state that teachers "can teach students phrasing, articulation, dynamics, and technique but for some, they will never produce a deep musical experience for the listener but rather, at best, a well planned "walk in the park without a leash." You then also suggest that the only way a performer can create a deep musical experience for their audience is if they are genetically endowed with "soul."
So the question is, how are teachers and/or culture responsible for the demise of the current (alleged) lack of musicality among our performers if genetics are ultimately what determines a person's ability to express themselves through music? If we grant your argument, is it not possible, or perhaps even likely, that a player's inability to play a simple song musically is really the result of genes rather than in poor teaching or cultural decline? Does this mean that teachers and culture off the hook? Does the bulk of the blame lie in genetics?
I would add that if fault does lies with teachers/culture, than the assumption must be that the majority of people are born with 'soul'. If the gift of 'soul' is reserved for only a select few, than this renders teachers rather helpless in the shaping of our musical landscape as the vast majority of their students wouldn't have the capacity to reach a high level of musicality in the first place. I would further speculate that those born with 'soul' (assuming 'soul' is more an intuitive phenomena--if it exists at all) would likely be able to attain a high level of musicality without the aid of a teacher, again diminishing the role and, in effect, culpability of music instructors.
It would be very much appreciated if you could clarify your argument. Thanks.